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      Home  >  Chess Improvement • Chess Puzzles  >  Real game tactic

      Real game tactic

      Chess tactic, Puzzle Solving


      White to move. Assess the position. How should White proceed?

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      19 Comments

      1. Anonymous Reply
        November 18, 2007 at 11:00 pm

        Fou d6+ la Tour est perdue et le pion va à DAME

      2. Anonymous Reply
        November 18, 2007 at 11:04 pm

        i disagree. lets try Bc6, rook moves and white either wins a whole rook for nothing, gets a queen or gives mate.

      3. Jochen Reply
        November 18, 2007 at 11:36 pm

        “white either wins a whole rook for nothing”
        Being down BB vs QRP that won’t be enough, hm? 😉
        [I am not quite sure which variation you mean here but I probably think you mean something like 1. Bc6 Rc8? or else after which white gets much more than just a rook].

        My main problem after Bc6 (which is the best move I also think) is 1. -, Rxg3+ !? (sacrifizing a whole rook :D) and probably it’s going to end in a perpetual (white’s bishop and rook mustn’t leave there places !).
        The cute try 2. Kh1?? loses to Rd3. 🙁

        My prediciton: 1. Bc6 to force the draw.

        Greetings
        Jochen

      4. TVTom Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 12:17 am

        “My prediction: 1. Bc6 to force the draw.”

        Yeah, that’s what I see as well. Bc6 is white’s only try, and black must take the draw to avoid mate. I don’t see any other choices on either side.

      5. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 1:18 am

        Is there any hope in 1. f5 ? That stops the Rxg3+ and Qxg3+ stuff and threatens f6+ which leads to mate. Any chance that can work?

      6. TVTom Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 2:12 am

        “Is there any hope in 1. f5 ? That stops the Rxg3+ and Qxg3+ stuff and threatens f6+ which leads to mate. Any chance that can work?”

        Well, suppose black simply takes the pawn with 1 (f5?) exf5! Then there is no f6+ threat, and white is down a whole bunch and has no attack; and now Bc6 no longer works.

      7. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 6:46 am

        1-Bc6 Rc8
        2-Rd7+ Kf8
        3-Rd8+ Ke7
        4-Rxc8 Anything
        5-Re8 mate.
        Kinan

      8. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 8:18 am

        What am I missing? Can’t white move Bg2 and win black’s queen and still have the leverage to promote the advanced pawn?

      9. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 8:24 am

        2:18 anon,

        Bg2 Rxg3
        hxg3 Qxg3

        and I think we’re back to a perpetual type situation much like those given above.

      10. henryk Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 10:58 am

        Are you guys sure that 1.Bc6 ends up in a perpetual?

        let’s say:
        1.Bc6 Rxg3+
        2.PxR Qxp+
        3.Kf1 Qh3+
        4.Kf2 Qg3+
        5.Kd2 Qg4+
        6.Bf3 Qf5
        7.Bd6+ Kd7
        8.Bc6+ Kc8
        9.BXR KxP
        10.Bd6+ Kc8
        11.Bxa3 wouldn’t white have three minor pieces for a queen. And I don’t see how white could have a perpetual.

      11. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 12:46 pm

        1.f5! should be the solution, as previously posted. White covers g3 and is threatening 2.Bg2 winning the queen (e.g. after 1.-ef5), or 2.f6 ef6 3.Bd6+ Ke8 4.Bc6++

      12. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 1:03 pm

        I take it back — after 1.f5 ef5 2.Bg2 Rg3 3.hg3 Qg4 there doesn’t seem to be anything for white.

      13. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 4:46 pm

        1. Bg2 Rxg3
        2. hxg3 Qxg3
        3. Bd6+ Kd7
        4. Bc6+ Kc8
        5. Bxf8

        Now White has a rook a 2 bishops v the queen.

      14. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 9:28 pm

        oh this is an interesting one

        1. bg2? rg3 2. hg qg3 3. bd6+ kd7 4. Bxf8+ Kxc7. To me, it looks like a -/+. For example 5.Bxa3?? h3 -+

        1. f5!? ef 2. bg2 rxg3 3.hg qg4 4. rd4 qe2 looks unclear but probably black’s winning; e.g. 5.bd6+ kf6 6. bxf8 hg (-+?)???

        1. bc6 rc8 2. rd7 kf8 3. rd8 ke7 rc8 and black may or may not have a perpetual but certainly not more than a draw

        1. bc6 rg3+ 2. hg qg3+ kf1 3. qh3+ 1/2

        henryk: white cannot move the king past the d-file since black simply have f6 and white cant respond rd7+ since the file is blocked

        on the other hand its unclear how black can push:

        3… Rc8 4. rd7+ kf8 5. rd8 ke7 6. rxc8 and re8#

        so: i think it’s a draw. the only reasonable move is 1.bc6

        axel

        PS can the pros calculate all such lines during the game?????

      15. Anonymous Reply
        November 19, 2007 at 9:42 pm

        btw henryk

        if you meant 5 ke2 (rather than kd2) black may respond 5… qh2+ with a perpetual (6. bg2? qg3+ 7. kh1 qb3 (-+?) )

        9… kxc7 is not necessary. for example 9… qc2+ or a2 (10 bxg7 qg4+ -+)

        this position may be in black’s favour (i dunno though)

      16. henryk Reply
        November 20, 2007 at 3:17 am

        To anon Monday, November 19, 2007 3:42:00 PM

        Yes, I meant 5.Ke2 where if black plays 5…Kh2+
        6.Ke3 Qb2(for instance) 7.Bd6 Kf6 (forced since 7…ke7 loses to 8. Bxa3+ and wins queen)8.BxR Qc3+ ke2 9. Qxc7 Bxa3

        But yeah that is unclear to 10.Qc2+ and black grabs white’ b pawn.

        But i think you might be right, it’s very unclear and the wisest thing for white to do is play for a draw.

      17. awfulhangover Reply
        November 20, 2007 at 2:15 pm

        Why not 1. Rd7+ ? Seems winning to me.

      18. tadman Reply
        November 20, 2007 at 3:17 pm

        Bb2

      19. Anonymous Reply
        February 29, 2008 at 3:29 pm

        Of course is Rd7+! If the King tries to run away instead of taking it then
        it would be mated by the queening of the pawn or Kxd7 Bc6 mate. Very simple problem, isn´t it? 😉

      Leave a Reply to awfulhangover Cancel reply

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